NTA UGC-NET Computer Science July 2018 - Paper II

Question 1

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1. The definitions in an XML document are said to be __________ when the tagging system and definitions in the DTD are all in compliance.

Options:

1. (1) well-formed
   
2. (2) reasonable
   
3. (3) valid
   
4. (4) logical
   

View Question 1 Explanation

Answer : ( 3 )

Question 2

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2. Consider the JavaScript Code :

  var y= ’’12”;
  function f( ) {
      var y=’’6”;
      alert (this.y);
      function g( ) {alert (y); }
      g( );
  }
  f( );

If M is the number of alert dialog boxes generated by this JavaScript

code and D1, D2, ....,DM represents the content displayed in each of the M dialog boxes, then :

Options:

1. (1) M=3; D1 displays ”12”; D2 displays ”6”; D3 displays ”12”.
2. (2) M=3; D1 displays ”6”; D2 displays ”12”; D3 displays ”6”.
3. (3) M=2; D1 displays ”6”; D2 displays ”12”.
4. (4) M=2; D1 displays ”12”; D2 displays ”6”.

View Question 2 Explanation

Answer : ( 4 )

Question 3

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3. What is the output of the following JAVA program ?
class simple
{
     public static void main(String[ ] args)
    {
         simple obj = new simple( );
         obj.start( );
    } 
   void start( ){
         long [ ] P= {3, 4, 5};
         long [ ] Q= method (P);
         System.out.print (P[0] + P[1] + P[2]+”:”);
         System.out.print (Q[0] + Q[1] + Q[2]);
   }
   long [ ] method (long [ ] R)
         {
         R [1]=7;
         return R;
   }
} //end of class

Options:

1. (1) 12 : 15
2. (2) 15 : 12
3. (3) 12 : 12
4. (4) 15 : 15

View Question 3 Explanation

Answer : ( 4 )

Question 4

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4. What is the output of the following ‘C’ program ?
(Assuming little - endian representation of multi-byte data in which Least Significant Byte (LSB) is stored at the lowest memory address.)

#include <stdio.h>
#include <stdlib.h>
/* Assume short int occupies two bytes of storage */
int main ( )
{
         union saving
         {
         short int one;
         char two[2];
         };
         union saving m;
         m.two [0] = 5;
         m.two [1] = 2;
         printf(’’%d, %d, %d\n”, m.two [0], m.two [1], m.one);
}/* end of main */

Options:

1. (1) 5, 2, 1282
2. (2) 5, 2, 52
3. (3) 5, 2, 25
4. (4) 5, 2, 517

View Question 4 Explanation

Answer : ( 4 ) 5, 2, 517

Question 5

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5. Given below are three implementations of the swap( ) function in C++ :

(a)	(b)	(c)
void swap(int a, int b) {    int temp;    temp = a;    a = b;    b = temp; } int main() {   int p = 0, q = 1;   swap(p, q); }	void swap(int &a, int &b) {    int temp;    temp = a;    a = b;    b = temp; } int main() {  int p = 0, q = 1;  swap (p, q); }	void swap(int *a, int *b) {    int * temp;    temp = a;    a = b;    b = temp; } int main() {  int p = 0, q = 1;  swap (&p, &q); }

Which of these would actually swap the contents of the two integer variables p and q ?

1. (1) (a) only
2. (2) (b) only
3. (3) (c) only
4. (4) (b) and (c) only

View Question 5 Explanation

Answer : (2) (b) only

Question 6

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6. In Java, which of the following statements is/are True ?
S₁ : The ‘final’ keyword applied to a class definition prevents the class from being extended through derivation.
S₂ : A class can only inherit one class but can implement multiple interfaces.
S₃ : Java permits a class to replace the implementation of a method that it has inherited. It is called method overloading.

Code :

1. (1) S₁ and S₂ only
2. (2) S₁ and S₃ only
3. (3) S₂ and S₃ only
4. (4) All of S₁, S₂ and S₃

View Question 6 Explanation

Answer : (1) S1 and S2 only

Question 7

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7. Which of the following statements is/are True ?
P : C programming language has a weak type system with static types.
Q : Java programming language has a strong type system with static types.

Code :

1. (1) P only
2. (2) Q only
3. (3) Both P and Q
4. (4) Neither P nor Q

View Question 7 Explanation

Answer : (3) Both P and Q

Question 8

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A graphic display system has a frame buffer that is 640 pixels wide, 480 pixels high and 1 bit of color depth. If the access time for each pixel on the average is 200 nanoseconds, then the refresh rate of this frame buffer is approximately :

1. (1) 16 frames per second
2. (2) 19 frames per second
3. (3) 21 frames per second
4. (4) 23 frames per second

View Question 8 Explanation

Answer: (1) 16 frames per second

Question 9

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9. Which of the following statements is/are True regarding the solution to the visibility problem in 3D graphics ?
S₁ : The Painter’s algorithm sorts polygons by depth and then paints (scan - converts) each Polygon on to the screen starting with the most nearest polygon.
S₂ : Backface Culling refers to eliminating geometry with backfacing normals.

Code :

1. (1) S₁ only
2. (2) S₂ only
3. (3) Both S₁ and S₂
4. (4) Neither S₁ nor S₂

View Question 9 Explanation

Answer : (2) S2 only

Question 10

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10. Consider the matrix  M=

2	0	0
0	1	0
0	1	1

representing a set of planar (2D) geometric transformations in homogeneous coordinates. Which of the following statements about the matrix M is True ?

1. (1) M represents first, a scaling of vector (2, 1) followed by
   translation of vector (1, 1)
2. (2) M represents first, a translation of vector (1, 1) followed by
   scaling of vector (2, 1)
3. (3) M represents first, a scaling of vector (3, 1) followed by
   shearing of parameters (−1, 1)
4. (4) M represents first, a shearing of parameters (−1, 1) followed by
   scaling of vector (3, 1)

View Question 10 Explanation

Answer: (2) M represents first, a translation of vector (1, 1) followed by scaling of vector (2, 1)

Question 11

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Assume the following regarding the development of a software system P :

- Estimated lines of code of P : 33, 480 LOC
- Average productivity for P : 620 LOC per person-month
- Number of software developers : 6
- Average salary of a software developer : ` 50,000 per month

If E, D and C are the estimated development effort (in person-months), estimated development time (in months), and estimated development cost (in ` Lac) respectively, then (E, D, C) =_________.

Options:

1. (1) (48, 8, 24)
2. (2) (54, 9, 27)
3. (3) (60, 10, 30)
4. (4) (42, 7, 21)

View Question 11 Explanation

Answer : (2) (54, 9, 27)

Question 12

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12. Match the following in Software Engineering :

List - I	List - II
(a) Product Complexity	(i) Software Requirements Definition
(b) Structured System Analysis	(ii) Software Design
(c) Coupling and Cohesion	(iii) Validation Technique
(d) Symbolic Execution	(iv) Software Cost Estimation

Code :

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
(1)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(i)
(2)	(iii)	(i)	(iv)	(ii)
(3)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)
(4)	(iii)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)

Options:

1. (1)
2. (2)
3. (3)
4. (4)

View Question 12 Explanation

Answer: (3)

Question 13

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13. Which one of the following is not typically provided by Source Code Management
Software ?

Options:

1. (1) Synchronisation
2. (2) Versioning and Revision history
3. (3) Syntax highlighting
4. (4) Project forking

View Question 13 Explanation

Answer : (3) Syntax highlighting

Question 14

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14. A software system crashed 20 times in the year 2017 and for each crash, it took 2 minutes to restart. Approximately, what was the software availability in that year ?

Options:

1. (1) 96.9924%
2. (2) 97.9924%
3. (3) 98.9924%
4. (4) 99.9924%

View Question 14 Explanation

Answer : (4) 99.9924%

Question 15

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Match the 5 CMM Maturity levels/CMMI staged representations in List- I with their
characterizations in List-II :

List - I	List -II
(a) Initial	(i) Processes are improved quantitatively and continually.
(b) Repeatable	(ii) The plan for a project comes from a template for plans.
(c) Defined	(iii) The plan uses processes that can be measured quantitatively.
(d) Managed	(iv) There may not exist a plan or it may be abandoned.
(e) Optimizing	(v) There’s a plan and people stick to it.

Code :

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)	(e)
(1)	(iv)	(v)	(i)	(iii)	(ii)
(2)	(i)	(ii)	(iv)	(v)	(iii)
(3)	(v)	(iv)	(ii)	(iii)	(i)
(4)	(iv)	(v)	(ii)	(iii)	(i)

Options:

1. (1)
2. (2)
3. (3)
4. (4)

View Question 15 Explanation

Answer : (4)

Question 16

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16. Coupling is a measure of the strength of the interconnections between software modules. Which of the following are correct statements with respect to module coupling ?

P : Common coupling occurs when one module controls the flow of another module by passing it information on what to do.

Q : In data coupling, the complete data structure is passed from one module to another through parameters.

R : Stamp coupling occurs when modules share a composite data structure and use only parts of it.

Code :

1. (1) P and Q only
2. (2) P and R only
3. (3) Q and R only
4. (4) All of P, Q and R

View Question 16 Explanation

Answer : (3) Q and R only

Question 17

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17. A software design pattern often used to restrict access to an object is :

Options:

1. (1) adapter
2. (2) decorator
3. (3) delegation
4. (4) proxy

View Question 17 Explanation

Answer : (4) proxy

UGC NET paper 1 july 2018 solved

NTA UGC NET Paper 1 July 2018

UGC NET Paper 1 Question Paper July 2018 Set P solved

1. Which of the following set of statements best describes the nature and objectives of teaching?
(a) Teaching and learning are integrally related.
(b) There is no difference between teaching and training.
(c) Concern of all teaching is to ensure some kind of transformation in students.
(d) All good teaching is formal in nature.
(e) A teacher is a senior person.
(f) Teaching is a social act whereas learning is a personal act.
Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (d)

(2) (b), (c) and (e)

(3) (a), (c) and (f)

(4) (d), (e) and (f)

Answer: 3
Research aptitude question are theoretical questions, best way to solve is to see which options can be discarded.
code (b) is not true. So, options 1, 2 are discarded.
Now, (f) is common to both remaining (c) and (d)
From remaining (a), (c), (d) and (e).
code (e) is not related or not conveying any aspect of the teaching (showing only that teacher is senior), so discard it.
So, option with valid codes is 3
The below link has video which explains this topic and has question discussion in hindi at end of video lecture:
https://unacademy.com/lesson/teaching-and-learning-characteristics-with-mcqs-in-hindi/711W3XS0

2. Which of the following learner characteristics is highly related to effectiveness of teaching?

(1) Prior experience of the learner

(2) Educational status of the parents of the learners

(3) Peer groups of the learner

(4) Family size from which the learner comes.

Answer: 1
Here, education status of the learner, peer group of learner and family size not matter while learning. Experience of the learner is the most prior,
which leads to good understanding and effectiveness during learning process.

3. In the two sets given below Set –I indicates methods of teaching while Set –II provides the basic requirements for success/effectiveness. Match the two sets and indicate your answer by choosing from the code:

Set – I (Method of teaching)	Set – II (Basic requirements for success/effectiveness)
(a) Lecturing	(i) Small step presentation with feedback provided
(b) Discussion in groups	(ii) Production of large number of ideas
(c) Brainstorming	(iii) Content delivery in a lucid language
(d) Programmed Instructional procedure	(iv) Use of teaching-aids
	(v) Theme based interaction among participants

Codes:  (a) (b) (c) (d) (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (3) (iii) (v) (ii) (i) (4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iiii)

Answer: 3
Best match here are
(b) Discussion in groups => (v) Theme based interaction among participants
(c) Brainstorming =>(ii) Production of large number of ideas

So, option (3) is correct with (a) and (d) matching correctly.

4. From the list of evaluation procedures given below identify those which will be called ‘formative evaluation’. Indicate your answer by choosing from the code :
(a) A teacher awards grades to students after having transacted the course work.
(b) During interaction with students in the classroom, the teacher provides corrective feedback.
(c) The teacher gives marks to students on a unit test.
(d) The teacher clarifies the doubts of students in the class itself.
(e) The overall performance of a students is reported to parents at every three months interval.
(f) The learner’s motivation is raised by the teacher through a question-answer session.
Code :

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (c) and (e)

(4) (b), (d) and (f)

Answer: 4
Evaluation of the students during the teaching process like corrective feedback in class, question answer sessions, discussion of some important topics among students to make it more interesting  and doubt solving. Teachers do this kind of evaluations to find the level of understanding is at the current moment.
http://www.nwlink.com/~donclark/hrd/isd/types_of_evaluations.html

5. Assertion (A): All teaching should aim at ensuring learning.
Reason (R): All learning results from teaching.
Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 3
Teaching is to make student learn. So, Assertion is correct. Learning can be without teaching or teacher. Ex. self-learning of new subject. So, reason is false (not correlated with assertion)

Option (3) is correct answer.

6. There are two sets given below.
Set – I specifies the types of research,
while Set –II indicates their characteristics.
Match the two and given your answer by selecting the appropriate code.

Set - I(Research types)	Set - II(Characteristics)
(a) Fundamental research	(i) Finding out the extent of perceived impact of an intervention
(b) Applied research	(ii) Developing an effective explanation through theory building
(c) Action research	(iii) Improving an existing situation through use of interventions
(d) Evaluative research	(iv) Exploring the possibility of a theory for use in various situations
	(v) Enriching technological resources

Codes:
      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1)  (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(2)  (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(3)  (iii) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(4)  (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

Answer: 1
Fundamental research => Theory building
Applied research => seeks to solve practical problems (use theory in various practical situations)
Evaluative research => Evaluate the algorithm or theorem based on set of inputs to find the validity of system. Analyse the output and evaluate it based on the considered parameters.
Action research => Cycle of (Plan,Act,Observe and Reflect) to make the results more accurate.

7. Which of the sets of activities best indicate the cyclic nature of action research strategy?

(1) Reflect, Observe, Plan, Act

(2) Observe, Act, Reflect, Plan

(3) Act, Plan, Observe, Reflect

(4) Plan, Act, Observe, Reflect

Answer: 4
Set of activities in cyclic nature of action research strategy:
1) Study and plan ( Plan)
2) Take action (Act)
3) Collect and analyse evidence(Observe)
4) Reflect
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Action_research

8. Which of the following sequence of research steps is nearer to scientific method?

(1) Suggested solution of the problem, Deducing the consequences of the solution, Perceiving the problem situation, Location of the difficulty and testing the solutions.

(2) Perceiving the problem situation, Locating the actual problem and its definition, Hypothesizing, Deducing the consequences of the suggested solution and Testing the hypothesis in action.

(3) Defining a problem, Identifying the causes of the problem, Defining a population, Drawing a sample, Collecting data and Analysing results.

(4) Identifying the causal factors, Defining the problem, Developing a hypothesis, Selecting a sample, Collecting data and arriving at generalization and Conclusions.

Answer: 3

9. The problem of ‘research ethics’ is concerned with which aspect of research activities?

(1) Following the prescribed format of a thesis

(2) Data analysis through qualitative or quantitative technique

(3) Defining the population of research

(4) Evidence based research reporting

Answer: 4
Evidence based research reporting.
In research paper the improved results has some previous reference of result cited from the other research paper. Research paper has citations that make evidence about your paper has some unique definition that has not been yet explored.

10. In which of the following activities, potential for nurturing creative and critical thinking is relatively greater?

(1) Preparing research summary

(2) Presenting a seminar paper

(3) Participation in research conference

(4) Participation in a workshop

Answer: 4
Workshop gives you the practical idea and the possibilities of thinking problem in different ways.

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 11 to 15 :
     If India has to develop her internal strengths, the nation has to focus on the technological imperatives, keeping in mind three dynamic dimensions : the people, the overall economy and the strategic interests. These technological imperatives also take into account a ‘fourth’ dimension, time, an offshoot of modern day dynamism in business, trade, and technology that leads to continually shifting targets. We believe that technological strengths are especially crucial in dealing with this fourth dimension underlying continuous change in the aspirations of the people, the economy in the global context, and the strategic interests. The progress of technology lies at the heart of human history. Technological strengths are the key to creating more productive employment in an increasingly competitive market place and to continually upgrade human skills. Without a pervasive use of technologies, we cannot achieve overall development of our people in the years to come. The direct linkages of technology to the nation’s strategic strengths are becoming more and more clear, especially since 1990s. India’s own strength in a number of core areas still puts it in a position of reasonable strength in geo-political context. Any nation aspiring to become a developed one needs to have strengths in various strategic technologies and also the ability to continually upgrade them through its own creative strengths. For people-oriented actions as well, whether for the creation of large scale productive employment or for ensuring nutritional and health security for people, or for better living conditions, technology is the only vital input. The absence of greater technological impetus could lead to lower productivity and wastage of precious natural resources. Activities with low productivity or low value addition, in the final analysis hurt the poorest most. The technological imperatives to lift our people to a new life, and to a life they are entitled to is important. India, aspiring to become a major economic power in terms of trade and increase in GDP, cannot succeed on the strength of turnkey projects designed and built abroad or only through large-scale imports of plant machinery, equipment and know how. Even while being alive to the short-term realities, medium and long-term strategies to develop core technological strengths within our industry are vital for envisioning a developed India.

11. According to the above passage, which of the following are indicative of the fourth dimension ?
(a) Aspirations of people
(b) Modern day dynamism
(c) Economy in the global context
(d) Strategic interests
Code :

(1) (a), (b) and (c) only

(2) (b), (c) and (d) only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) only

(4) (a), (b) and (d) only

Answer: 3
We believe that technological strengths are especially crucial in dealing with this fourth dimension underlying continuous change in the aspirations of the people, the economy in the global context, and the strategic interests.

12. More productive employment demands :

(1) Pervasive use of technology

(2) Limiting competitive market place

(3) Geo-political considerations

(4) Large industries

Answer: 1
Technological strengths are the key to creating more productive employment in an increasingly competitive market place and to continually upgrade human skills. Without a pervasive use of technologies, we cannot achieve overall development of our people in the years to come.

13. Absence of technology would lead to : (a) Less pollution
(b) Wastage of precious natural resources
(c) Low value addition
(d) Hurting the poorest most
Code :

(1) (a), (b) and (c) only

(2) (b), (c) and (d) only

(3) (a), (b) and (d) only

(4) (a), (c) and (d) only

Answer: 2
The absence of greater technological impetus could lead to lower productivity and wastage of precious natural resources. Activities with low productivity or low value addition, in the final analysis hurt the poorest most.

14. The advantage of technological inputs would result in :

(1) Unbridled technological growth

(2) Importing plant machinery

(3) Sidelining environmental issues

(4) Lifting our people to a life of dignity

Answer: 4
The technological imperatives to lift our people to a new life, and to a life they are entitled to is important.

15. Envisioning a developed India requires :

(1) Aspiration to become a major economic player

(2) Dependence upon projects designed abroad

(3) Focus on short-term projects

(4) Development of core technological strengths

Answer: 4
Long-term strategies to develop core technological strengths within our industry are vital for envisioning a developed India.

16. Differentiation between acceptance and non-acceptance of certain stimuli in classroom communication is the basis of :

(1) selective expectation of performance

(2) selective affiliation to peer groups

(3) selective attention

(4) selective morality

Answer: 1
Selective expectation of performance from student based on the acceptance and non-acceptance of certain stimuli in classroom communication between teacher and student.

17. Assertion (A) : The initial messages to students in the classroom by a teacher need not be critical to establish interactions later.
Reason (R) : More control over the communication process means more control over what the students are learning. Code :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 4

18. Assertion (A) : To communicate well in the classroom is a natural ability.
Reason (R) : Effective teaching in the classroom demands knowledge of the communication process. Code :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 4
Here Assertion is false and Reason is true.
As good communication is not natural ability.
Effective teaching requires the knowledge of the communication process.

19. Assertion (A) : Classroom communication is a transactional process.
Reason (R) : A teacher does not operate under the assumption that students’ responses are purposive. Select the correct code for your answer :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 3
Here Assertion is true and Reason is false.
because : A teacher operate under the assumption that students’ responses are purposive.
Classroom communication is a transactional process (interaction between people).

20. Which of the following set of statements is correct for describing the human communication process ? (a) Non-verbal communication can stimulate ideas.
(b) Communication is a learnt ability.
(c) Communication is not a universal panacea.
(d) Communication cannot break-down.
(e) More communication means more effective learning by students.
(f) Value of what is learnt through classroom communication is not an issue for students.
Code :

(1) (a), (c), (e) and (f)

(2) (b), (d), (e) and (f)

(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (d), (e) and (f)

Answer: 3
code (e) is incorrect. So, the options without (e) is option 3 only.

21. The next term in the series −1, 5, 15, 29, ? , ... is :

(1) 36

(2) 47 (3) 59

(4) 63

Answer: 2
-1,(+6) 5,(+10) 15,(+14) 29,(+18) --> 47
Here, increments in numbers  +6, +10, +14, +18 forms an arithmetic progression(AP).

22. The next term in the series ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL, ? , ... is :

(1) ZKU

(2) ZCA (3) ZKW

(4) KZU

Answer: 3
ABD,(+3,+5,+7) DGK,(+4,+6,+8) HMS,(+5,+7,+9) MTB,(+6,+8,+10) SBL,(+7,+9,+11)--> ZKW 

23. If VARANASI is coded as WCUESGZQ, then the code of KOLKATA will be :

(1) LOQOZEH

(2) HLZEOOQ (3) ZELHOQO

(4) LQOOFZH

Answer: 4
VARANASI(+1,+2,+3,+4...)-> WCUESGZQ KOLKATA(+1,+2,+3,+4...) -->LQOOFZH

24. Introducing Rakesh to her husband a women said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather”. The woman is related to Rakesh as :

(1) Aunt

(2) Mother (3) Sister

(4) Daughter

Answer: 3

25. Two numbers are in the ratio 2 : 5. If 16 is added to both the numbers, their ratio becomes 1 : 2. The numbers are :

(1) 16, 40

(2) 20, 50 (3) 28, 70

(4) 32, 80

Answer: 4
Let  x : y = 2 : 5
then, (x+16) : (y+16) = 1 : 2
So, y - 2x =16, which satisfied in option

(4) =>80 - (2*32) = 16

26. Superiority of intellect depends upon its power of concentration on one theme in the same way as a concave mirror collects all the rays that strike upon it into one point.

(1) Mathematical

(2) Psychological    (3) Analogical

(4) Deductive

Answer: 3
Analogy is a comparison between one thing and another, typically for the purpose of explanation or clarification
Here, To understand Superiority of intellect, the power concentration is compared to the concave mirro example
https://www.vocabulary.com/dictionary/analogical

27. Given below are two premises (A and B). Four conclusions are drawn from them. Select the code that states validity drawn conclusion (s) (taking the premises individually or jointly). Premises:
(A) Most of the dancers are physically fit.
(B) Most of the singers are dancers.
Conclusions:
(a) Most of the singers are physically fit.
(b) Most of the dancers are singers.
(c) Most of the physically fit persons are dancers.
(d) Most of the physically fit persons are singers.
Code:

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (d) and (a)

Answer: 1

28. Which one among the following is a presupposition in inductive reasoning?

(1) Law of identity

(2) Unchangeability in nature

(3) Harmony in nature

(4) Uniformity of nature

Answer: 4

29. If the proposition ‘domestic animals are hardly ferocious’ is taken to be false, which of the following proposition/propositions can be claimed to be certainly true?
Select the correct code:
Propositions:
(a) All domestic animals are ferocious.
(b) Most of the domestic animals are ferocious.
(c) No domestic animal is ferocious.
(d) Some domestic animals are non-ferocious.
Code:

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (a) only

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (b) only

Answer: 3

30. Which one of the following statements is not correct in the context of Venn diagram method?

(1) It is a method of testing the validity of arguments.

(2) It represents both the premises of a syllogism in one diagram.

(3) It requires two overlapping circles for the two premises of a standard-form categorical syllogism.

(4) It can be used to represent classes as well as propositions.

Answer: 3
Below link explains answer
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2845223/venn-diagram-choose-the-odd-man-out

The table below embodies data on the production, exports and per capita consumption of rice in country P for the five years from 2012 to 2016. Answer questions 31 - 35 based on the data contained in the table.

Year-wise Production, Exports and Per Capita Consumption of Rice
Year	Production (in million Kg)	Exports (in million kg)	Per Capita Consumption (in kg)
2012	186.5	114	36.25
2013	202	114	35.2
2014	238	130	38.7
2015	221	116	40.5
2016	215	88	42

Where, Per Capita Consumption=(Consumption in million kg) /(Population in million) and consumption (in million kg ) = Production - Exports

31. The Percentage increase in the consumption of rice over the previous year was the highest in which year?

(1) 2013

(2) 2014

(3) 2015

(4) 2016

Answer: 2
2013 (35.2 * 100 )/ 36.25 - 100 ==> -2.90
2014 (38.7 * 100 )/ 35.2 - 100 ==> +9.94
2015 (40.5 * 100 )/ 38.7 - 100 ==> +4.65
2016 (42 * 100 )/ 40.5 - 100 ==> +4.86

32. What is the population of the country in the year 2014 (in million)?

(1) 2.64

(2) 2.72

(3) 2.79

(4) 2.85

Answer: 3
Year 2014 Population (million)
= Consumption (million kg)/ Per Capita Consumption (in kg)
 = (Production - Exports)/ Per Capita Consumption (in kg)
 = 238-130 / 38.7 = 2.79

33. The ratio of exports to consumption in the given period was the highest in the year:

(1) 2012

(2) 2013

(3) 2014

(4) 2015

Answer: 1
consumption (in million kg )
= Production - Exports Export / consumption
2012: 114/(186.5-114) => 1.58
2013: 114/(202-114) => 1.29
2014: 130/(238-130) =>1.20
2015: 116/(221-116) =>1.10
2016: 88/(215-88) => 0.69

34. In which year, the population of country was the highest?

(1) 2013

(2) 2014

(3) 2015

(4) 2016

Answer: 4
Population (million)= (Production - Exports)/ Per Capita Consumption (in kg)
2012: => (186.5-114)/36.25 = 2
2013: => (202-114)/35.2 = 2.5
2014: => (238-130)/38.7 = 2.79
2015: => (221-116)/40.5 = 2.59
2016: => (215-88)/42 = 3.02

35. What is the average consumption of rice (in million kg) over the years 2012 - 2016?

(1) 104

(2) 102.1

(3) 108

(4) 100.1

Answer: 4
Average consumption = (total Production - total Exports) / 5
 = (1062.6 - 562) / 5
 = 100.1

36. Which of the following statements, regarding the term ICT is/are TRUE?
P: ICT is an acronym that stands for Indian Classical Technology.
Q: Converging technologies that exemplify ICT include the merging of audio-visual, telephone and computer networks through a common cabling system.

(1) P Only

(2) Q Only

(3) P and Q

(4) Neither P nor Q

Answer: 2
ICT: Information and communications technology
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Information_and_communications_technology

37. A new Laptop has been produced that weighs less, is smaller and uses less power previous Laptop models. Which of the following technologies has been used to accomplish this?

(1) Universal Serial Bus Mouse

(2) Faster Random Access Memory

(3) Blu Ray Drive

(4) Solid State Hard Drive

Answer: 4
A solid-state drive (SSD) is a solid-state storage device that uses integrated circuit assemblies as memory to store data persistently. SSDs have no moving mechanical components. This distinguishes them from conventional hard disk drives (HDDs) or floppy disks (electromechanical drives).
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Solid-state_drive

38. Given the following email fields, which of the email addresses will ‘swami’ be able to see when he receives the message?

To…	ram@test.com
Cc…	raj@test.com; ravi@test.com
Bcc…	swami@test.com; rama@test.com

(1) ram@test.com

(2) ram@test.com; raj@test.com; ravi@test.com

(3) ram@test.com; rama@test.com

(4) ram@test.com; rama@test.com; raj@test.com; ravi@test.com

Answer: 2 BCC- blind carbon copy: BCC is similar to CC but To or Cc fields recipients will not know that a copy has also sent to BCC address Here swami@test.com is in BCC. Hence he will be able to see all To and CC recipients but they can't see the swami@test.com and rama@test.com

39. Put the following units of storage into the correct order, starting with the smallest unit first and going down to the largest unit:
(a) Kilobyte
(b) byte
(c) Megabyte
(d) Terabyte
(e) Gigabyte
(f) Bit
Give your answer from the following code:

(1) (f), (b), (a), (c), (d), (e)

(2) (f), (b), (a), (d), (e), (c)

(3) (f), (b), (a), (c), (e), (d)

(4) (f), (b), (a), (d), (c), (e)

Answer: 3
Bit < Byte(8 Bit) < Kilobyte(1024 Byte) < Megabyte(1024 Byte) < Gigabyte(1024 Byte) < Terabyte(1024 Byte)

40. With regard to computer memory, which of the following statement (s) is/are TRUE?
P: Read Only Memory (ROM) is ‘volatile’ memory.
Q: Random Access Memory (RAM) is ‘volatile’ memory.
R: Secondary Memory is ‘volatile’ memory.

(1) P only

(2) Q only

(3) P and Q only

(4) P and R only

Answer: 2
RAM is primary memory, which is much faster than any other memory type. RAM is volatile memory as its data gets wiped out when computer is shut off. Whereas non-volatile memory is memory which do not require any power to get retained e.g. Hard disk or memory card.

41. ‘Fly ash’ produced in thermal power plants is an ecofriendly resource for use in:
(a) agriculture as micro-nutrient
(b) wasteland development
(c) dam and water holding structures
(d) brick industry
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b) and (d) only

(2) (b), (c) and (d) Only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) Only

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: 4
Uses of fly ash in mine filling, construction of roads/ flyover embankments, hydraulic structures, raising of dykes, manufacture of several building components like bricks, blocks, tiles and use in agriculture.
Waste lands, degraded lands, saline alkaline soils, eroded soils etc., can be successfully reclaimed by fly ash.
http://www.wealthywaste.com/fly-ash-utilization-in-india

42. Which of the following types of natural disasters has no definite beginning and end?

(1) Earthquakes

(2) Landsides

(3) Hurricanes

(4) Droughts

Answer: 4
Drought is the correct answer for your question “which of the natural disaster has no definite beginning and end
https://brainly.in/question/4773333

43. Assertion (A): Indoor air pollution is serious hazard.
Reason (R): The dispersal of air pollutants is rather limited in indoor environment.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: 1
Here, both A and R statements are correct. But the R doesn't explains anything related to the serious hazard due to Indoor air pollution.

44. In terms of their contribution to the total power generation in India, Identify the correct sequence of energy sources – Thermal Power Plants (TPP), Large Hydropower Projects (LHP), Nuclear Energy (NE) and Renewable Energy (RE) which includes solar energy, wind energy, biomass and small hydropower projects.

(1) TPP > RE > LHP > NE

(2) TPP > LHP > RE > NE

(3) LHP > TPP > RE > NE

(4) LHP > TPP > NE > RE

Answer: 1
Thermal 64.1%   
RES (Renewable Energy Sources) 20.8%
Hydro 13.1%
Nuclear 2.0%
https://powermin.nic.in/en/content/power-sector-glance-all-india

45. Which of the following is considered as major source of pollution in rivers of India?

(1) Unregulated small scale industry

(2) Untreated sewage

(3) Agricultural run-off

(4) Thermal power plants

Answer: 2
The largest source of water pollution in India is untreated sewage
Water bodies e.g. lake, river, ocean and ground water get contaminated due to discharge of pollutants in the water bodies without any treatment to remove harmful compounds.
https://www.commonfloor.com/guide/what-are-the-major-causes-of-water-pollution-in-india-27741.html

46. India has the largest Higher Education System in the World after:
(a) The United States of America
(b) Australia
(c) China
(d) United Kingdom (UK)
Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) only

(4) (a) and (c) only

Answer: 4
India's higher education system is the third largest in the world, next to the United States and China.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Higher_education_in_India

47. Prime Minister Research Fellowship is for students pursuing Ph. D programme in:

(1) State and Central Universities

(2) Central Universities, IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs and IIITs

(3) IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs, IIITs, State and Central Universities

(4) IITs and IISc

Answer:4
The Government of India is offering Prime Minister’s Research Fellowship Scheme for Doctoral Studies (PhD) in IITs and IISc aimed at attracting the best talent.
https://scholarship-positions.com/prime-minister-research-fellowship/2018/02/27/

48. Leader of the opposition is a member of committees which select:
(a) the central information Commissioner
(b) the Central Vigilance Commissioner
(c) the Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission
(d) the Chairperson of National Commission for women
Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) only

(4) (a), (b) and (d) only

Answer:2

49. Which of the following statements are correct about gender budgeting?
(a) It is separates budget addressing the specific needs of women.
(b) It assesses the impact of government budget on women.
(c) It is an accounting exercise.
(d) It is another budgeting innovation.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (b) and (d) only

(2) (a) and (d) only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) only

(4) (a) and (b) only

Answer: 1

50. Which of the following are the barriers to citizen-centric administration in India?
(a) Wooden and inflexible attitude of the civil servants
(b) Ineffective implementation of laws and rules
(c) Awareness of rights and duties of citizens
(d) Lack of job opportunities for the youth
Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(3) (a), (b) and (d) only

(4) (a) and (b) only

Answer: 4